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NFAT MSc Forensic Science:Set -2 | NFAT Mock Test

NFAT MSc Forensic Science: Set -2 | NFAT Mock Test

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1. For a reaction at 298 K, \(\Delta H = -30 \, \text{kJ/mol}\) and \(\Delta S = -100 \, \text{J/(mol·K)}\). Calculate \(\Delta G\) and determine if the reaction is spontaneous.

A) -0.2 kJ/mol, spontaneous
B) -0.2 kJ/mol, non-spontaneous
C) +0.2 kJ/mol, non-spontaneous
D) +0.2 kJ/mol, spontaneous

2. In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas with \(\gamma = 1.67\), the volume increases by a factor of 2. What is the ratio of final to initial pressure?

A) 0.5
B) 0.25
C) 0.63
D) 0.31

3. For an exothermic reaction with positive \(\Delta S\), what happens to spontaneity as temperature increases?

A) Becomes more spontaneous
B) Becomes less spontaneous
C) Remains unchanged
D) Becomes non-spontaneous

4. The standard molar entropy of a gas at 300 K is 200 J/(mol·K). If \(\Delta H_f^\circ = -50 \, \text{kJ/mol}\), what is \(\Delta G_f^\circ\) at 300 K?

A) -110 kJ/mol
B) -60 kJ/mol
C) +10 kJ/mol
D) -50 kJ/mol

5. In a Carnot cycle, the efficiency of an engine operating between 600 K and 300 K is:

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

6. For a reaction, \(\Delta H = 40 \, \text{kJ/mol}\) and \(\Delta S = 80 \, \text{J/(mol·K)}\). At what temperature does \(\Delta G = 0\)?

A) 400 K
B) 450 K
C) 480 K
D) 500 K

7. The work done in an isochoric process is:

A) Equal to heat supplied
B) Zero
C) Equal to pressure change
D) Equal to volume change

8. For a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which quantity remains constant?

A) Internal energy
B) Enthalpy
C) Entropy
D) Free energy

9. The entropy change for the universe in a spontaneous process is:

A) Zero
B) Negative
C) Constant
D) Positive

10. For a gas undergoing adiabatic compression, if the initial temperature is 300 K and \(\gamma = 1.4\), what is the final temperature if volume is halved?

A) 356 K
B) 397 K
C) 450 K
D) 500 K

11. The standard enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g) is -393.5 kJ/mol, and for H₂O(l) is -285.8 kJ/mol. Calculate \(\Delta H\) for the combustion of CH₄(g) if \(\Delta H_f^\circ(CH_4) = -74.8 \, \text{kJ/mol}\).

A) -890.3 kJ/mol
B) -604.5 kJ/mol
C) -965.1 kJ/mol
D) -802.7 kJ/mol

12. In a bomb calorimeter, the heat of combustion is measured at:

A) Constant pressure
B) Constant volume
C) Constant temperature
D) Constant entropy

13. For a system where \(\Delta H = \Delta U\), what must be true?

A) \(\Delta n_g \neq 0\)
B) Temperature is constant
C) Pressure is constant
D) \(\Delta n_g = 0\)

14. The entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 K is zero according to which law?

A) First law
B) Third law
C) Second law
D) Zeroth law

15. For an endothermic reaction, spontaneity is favored by:

A) High temperature and positive \(\Delta S\)
B) Low temperature and positive \(\Delta S\)
C) High temperature and negative \(\Delta S\)
D) Low temperature and negative \(\Delta S\)

16. The work done in an isothermal reversible expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K from 10 L to 20 L is (R = 8.314 J/(mol·K)):

A) -1729 J
B) -1729 J
C) +1729 J
D) 0 J

17. Which process has the highest entropy change for the system?

A) Freezing of water
B) Condensation of steam
C) Sublimation of dry ice
D) Vaporization of water

18. The standard Gibbs free energy change for a reaction is zero. What does this indicate?

A) Reaction is spontaneous
B) Reaction is at equilibrium
C) Reaction is non-spontaneous
D) Reaction is endothermic

19. For an ideal gas undergoing isobaric expansion, the work done is given by:

A) \( W = -P\Delta V \)
B) \( W = -\Delta U \)
C) \( W = -\Delta H \)
D) \( W = 0 \)

20. The standard molar enthalpy of vaporization of a liquid is 40 kJ/mol at 373 K. What is the entropy change for vaporization?

A) 80 J/(mol·K)
B) 90 J/(mol·K)
C) 100 J/(mol·K)
D) 107.2 J/(mol·K)

21. For a real gas, if the compressibility factor \( Z > 1 \), what dominates at high pressure?

A) Attractive forces
B) No intermolecular forces
C) Both forces balance
D) Repulsive forces

22. Calculate the root mean square speed of N₂ molecules at 300 K (Molar mass = 28 g/mol, \( R = 8.314 \, \text{J/(mol·K)} \)).

A) 412 m/s
B) 517 m/s
C) 612 m/s
D) 715 m/s

23. The van der Waals equation corrects the ideal gas law by accounting for:

A) Molecular volume and intermolecular forces
B) Molecular mass and pressure
C) Temperature and volume
D) Entropy and enthalpy

24. A gas at 2 atm and 300 K occupies 5 L. If pressure is doubled and temperature is halved, what is the new volume?

A) 1.25 L
B) 1.25 L
C) 5 L
D) 10 L

25. At the critical temperature of a gas, what is true?

A) Gas behaves ideally
B) Gas can be liquefied by pressure
C) Intermolecular forces are negligible
D) Gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone

26. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to:

A) Pressure
B) Absolute temperature
C) Volume
D) Number of moles

27. For a gas, the mean free path is inversely proportional to:

A) Pressure
B) Temperature
C) Volume
D) Molecular mass

28. The critical temperature of CO₂ is 304 K. Below this temperature, CO₂ can be liquefied by:

A) Increasing temperature
B) Applying pressure
C) Reducing volume to zero
D) Decreasing pressure

29. The ratio of most probable speed to root mean square speed for an ideal gas is:

A) \(\sqrt{2}\)
B) \(\sqrt{3/2}\)
C) \(\sqrt{2/3}\)
D) \(\sqrt{8/3\pi}\)

30. The density of a gas at 2 atm and 273 K is 1.25 g/L. What is its molar mass?

A) 28 g/mol
B) 30.4 g/mol
C) 44 g/mol
D) 16 g/mol

31. In the van der Waals equation, the term \( a/V^2 \) corrects for:

A) Intermolecular attractive forces
B) Molecular volume
C) Temperature effects
D) Pressure effects

32. The effusion rate of an unknown gas is 0.5 times that of O₂ at the same temperature. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?

A) 16 g/mol
B) 64 g/mol
C) 32 g/mol
D) 128 g/mol

33. Which gas deviates most from ideal behavior at low temperature and high pressure?

A) He
B) H₂
C) Ne
D) CO₂

34. The partial pressure of O₂ in a mixture of O₂ and N₂ (molar ratio 1:2) at 3 atm total pressure is:

A) 1.5 atm
B) 1 atm
C) 2 atm
D) 0.5 atm

35. The boiling point of a liquid increases with:

A) Stronger intermolecular forces
B) Lower pressure
C) Lower molecular weight
D) Weaker intermolecular forces

36. For an ideal gas, the average translational kinetic energy per molecule at 300 K is:

A) \( 3RT \)
B) \( \frac{3}{2}kT \)
C) \( \frac{3}{2}RT \)
D) \( kT \)

37. The critical pressure of a gas is related to which van der Waals constant?

A) \( b \)
B) \( R \)
C) \( T_c \)
D) \( a \)

38. The viscosity of a gas increases with:

A) Decreasing temperature
B) Increasing temperature
C) Decreasing pressure
D) Increasing molecular weight

39. Dalton’s law of partial pressures applies to:

A) Non-reacting ideal gases
B) Real gases only
C) Liquids and gases
D) Reacting gases

40. The liquefaction of a gas is easiest for:

A) Low critical temperature
B) High critical temperature
C) Low molecular weight
D) Low pressure

41. The bond order of the peroxide ion (\( O_2^{2-} \)) in molecular orbital theory is:

A) 2
B) 1
C) 1.5
D) 0

42. Which molecule exhibits sp³d² hybridization?

A) SF₄
B) PF₅
C) XeF₂
D) SF₆

43. According to VSEPR theory, the geometry of ClF₃ is:

A) T-shaped
B) Trigonal planar
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Linear

44. Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?

A) NH₃
B) BF₃
C) H₂O
D) HF

45. The bond angle in SO₂ is closest to:

A) 180°
B) 109.5°
C) 90°
D) 120°

46. In molecular orbital theory, which orbital is filled first in O₂?

A) \(\sigma_{2p}\)
B) \(\pi_{2p}\)
C) \(\pi^*_{2p}\)
D) \(\sigma^*_{2p}\)

47. The strongest intermolecular force in NH₃ is:

A) Hydrogen bonding
B) Dipole-dipole interaction
C) London dispersion forces
D) Ionic bonding

48. The hybridization of the central atom in ICl₄⁻ is:

A) sp³
B) sp³d²
C) sp³d
D) sp²

49. Which molecule is diamagnetic?

A) O₂
B) NO
C) N₂⁺
D) N₂

50. The bond length in a molecule is shortest when:

A) Bond order is low
B) Bond order is high
C) Electronegativity difference is high
D) Atomic size is large

51. The geometry of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:

A) Square planar
B) Tetrahedral
C) Octahedral
D) Linear

52. Which molecule has a bond angle closest to 90°?

A) CH₄
B) PCl₅
C) NH₃
D) H₂O

53. The lattice energy of an ionic compound depends primarily on:

A) Atomic radius
B) Molecular weight
C) Bond length
D) Ionic charge and radius

54. In CO, the bond order is:

A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 2.5

55. The strongest bond is found in:

A) N₂
B) O₂
C) F₂
D) Cl₂

56. The hybridization of the central atom in XeF₂ is:

A) sp
B) sp³d
C) sp²
D) sp³

57. Which molecule has a see-saw geometry?

A) XeF₄
B) PF₅
C) ClF₃
D) SF₄

58. The bond in HF is best described as:

A) Ionic
B) Polar covalent
C) Non-polar covalent
D) Metallic

59. The molecular orbital configuration of B₂ shows:

A) Paramagnetism
B) Diamagnetism
C) No unpaired electrons
D) Bond order of 2

60. The bond angle in NH₃ is less than 109.5° due to:

A) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion
B) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion
C) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion
D) Electronegativity of nitrogen

61. In taxonomic classification, the correct hierarchical order from highest to lowest is:

A) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
B) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species
C) Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
D) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species

62. Which is NOT a criterion for defining a biological species?

A) Reproductive isolation
B) Genetic similarity
C) Morphological similarity
D) Geographic distribution

63. The type specimen in taxonomy is used for:

A) Genetic analysis
B) Defining a species
C) Studying behavior
D) Classifying habitats

64. The unique feature of living organisms at the molecular level is:

A) Self-replicating molecules
B) Inorganic compounds
C) Stable isotopes
D) Crystalline structures

65. In binomial nomenclature, the genus name is:

A) The second name
B) The first name
C) Always italicized
D) Always lowercase

66. A herbarium primarily serves to:

A) Grow live plants
B) Study animal fossils
C) Analyze soil samples
D) Preserve plant specimens

67. The primary purpose of a taxonomic key is:

A) Naming organisms
B) Identifying organisms
C) Classifying habitats
D) Studying genetics

68. Biodiversity is best defined as:

A) Variety of life forms in an ecosystem
B) Number of species in a genus
C) Size of an ecosystem
D) Number of kingdoms

69. The scientist who developed binomial nomenclature was:

A) Charles Darwin
B) Carolus Linnaeus
C) R.H. Whittaker
D) Ernst Haeckel

70. Which is NOT a characteristic of living organisms?

A) Metabolism
B) Growth
C) Reproduction
D) Crystallization

71. The smallest taxonomic unit is:

A) Genus
B) Species
C) Family
D) Order

72. A zoological park primarily serves to:

A) Conserve animal species
B) Grow plants
C) Study fossils
D) Classify bacteria

73. The process exclusive to living organisms is:

A) Diffusion
B) Metabolism
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation

74. The term ‘holotype’ refers to:

A) A common specimen
B) A living organism
C) A fossil sample
D) A single specimen defining a species

75. A museum in biological studies is used for:

A) Growing plants
B) Preserving specimens
C) Classifying habitats
D) Genetic analysis

76. In Whittaker’s five-kingdom classification, which kingdom includes mixotrophic organisms?

A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Plantae

77. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria primarily due to:

A) Peptidoglycan cell wall
B) Unicellular structure
C) Prokaryotic nature
D) Pseudomurein cell wall

78. Which organism exhibits a saprophytic mode of nutrition?

A) Rhizopus
B) Euglena
C) Spirogyra
D) Chlamydomonas

79. The cell wall of fungi is composed of:

A) Cellulose
B) Chitin
C) Peptidoglycan
D) Lignin

80. Which group in kingdom Monera can perform nitrogen fixation?

A) Mycoplasma
B) Actinomycetes
C) Archaebacteria
D) Cyanobacteria

81. The kingdom that includes organisms with a true nucleus is:

A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Bacteria
D) Archaea

82. The scientist who proposed the five-kingdom classification was:

A) R.H. Whittaker
B) Carolus Linnaeus
C) Ernst Haeckel
D) Charles Darwin

83. Mycoplasma differs from other Monera because it lacks:

A) A nucleus
B) A cell wall
C) DNA
D) Ribosomes

84. The primary mode of nutrition in kingdom Fungi is:

A) Autotrophic
B) Photosynthetic
C) Chemotrophic
D) Heterotrophic

85. Slime molds belong to which kingdom?

A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Plantae

86. Which organism is an example of a dinoflagellate?

A) Gonyaulax
B) Rhizopus
C) Anabaena
D) Spirogyra

87. The cell wall of bacteria is primarily composed of:

A) Cellulose
B) Peptidoglycan
C) Chitin
D) Lignin

88. Which feature is NOT typical of kingdom Plantae?

A) Photosynthesis
B) Cellulose cell wall
C) Eukaryotic cells
D) Heterotrophic nutrition

89. The mode of nutrition in cyanobacteria is:

A) Heterotrophic
B) Autotrophic
C) Saprophytic
D) Parasitic

90. The primary role of hyphae in fungi is:

A) Nutrient absorption
B) Spore production
C) Photosynthesis
D) Locomotion

91. The prothallus in pteridophytes is:

A) Sporophyte
B) Gametophyte
C) Zygote
D) Embryo

92. Which plant group lacks true roots, stems, and leaves?

A) Pteridophytes
B) Gymnosperms
C) Angiosperms
D) Bryophytes

93. Double fertilization in angiosperms results in:

A) Zygote and endosperm
B) Two zygotes
C) Two embryos
D) Two seeds

94. The dominant phase in gymnosperms is:

A) Gametophyte
B) Sporophyte
C) Zygote
D) Embryo

95. Which algal group is characterized by phycoerythrin?

A) Phaeophyceae
B) Chlorophyceae
C) Cyanophyceae
D) Rhodophyceae

96. The archegonium in bryophytes produces:

A) Sperm
B) Egg
C) Spores
D) Zygote

97. Which plant group is known as the amphibians of the plant kingdom?

A) Gymnosperms
B) Angiosperms
C) Pteridophytes
D) Bryophytes

98. The reproductive organ in gymnosperms is:

A) Cone
B) Flower
C) Sporangium
D) Antheridium

99. In algae, the primary pigment for photosynthesis is:

A) Carotene
B) Chlorophyll
C) Phycocyanin
D) Xanthophyll

100. Which plant group shows heterospory?

A) Bryophytes
B) Algae
C) Fungi
D) Pteridophytes

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