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NFAT MSc/MTech Cybersecurity: Set -3 | NFAT Mock Test

NFAT MSc/MTech Cybersecurity: Set -3 | NFAT Mock Test

Time Remaining: 90:00

1. Which of the following is the fastest memory in the memory hierarchy?

A) Registers
B) Cache Memory
C) Main Memory (RAM)
D) Secondary Storage

2. Cache memory is divided into multiple levels. Which level is the fastest and smallest?

A) L3
B) L1
C) L2
D) L4

3. Which memory type is volatile and loses data when power is turned off?

A) RAM
B) SSD
C) HDD
D) Magnetic Tape

4. Which of the following is used for long-term storage and is non-volatile?

A) Secondary Storage
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Registers

5. Tertiary storage typically includes:

A) Optical disks and magnetic tapes
B) RAM and Cache
C) Registers and L1 Cache
D) SSD and HDD

6. In contiguous memory allocation, a process is stored in:

A) A single continuous section of memory
B) Multiple non-contiguous blocks
C) Virtual memory only
D) Cache memory

7. Which allocation method divides memory into OS and one user process only?

A) Single Partition Allocation
B) Multi-Partition Allocation
C) Dynamic Partitioning
D) Fixed Partitioning

8. Single Partition Allocation is inefficient for:

A) Multitasking
B) Single-threaded applications
C) Real-time systems
D) Batch processing

9. Which is an advantage of Single Partition Allocation?

A) Easy to implement
B) Supports multitasking
C) No fragmentation
D) High memory utilization

10. In Multi-Partition Allocation, partitions can be:

A) Fixed or dynamic
B) Only fixed
C) Only dynamic
D) Virtual only

11. Fixed Partitioning leads to:

A) Internal fragmentation
B) External fragmentation
C) No fragmentation
D) Virtual fragmentation

12. Dynamic Partitioning reduces:

A) Internal fragmentation
B) External fragmentation
C) Both internal and external
D) Neither

13. External fragmentation occurs when:

A) Free memory is scattered
B) Allocated block has unused space
C) Process is too large
D) Cache miss occurs

14. Compaction is used to reduce:

A) External fragmentation
B) Internal fragmentation
C) Cache misses
D) CPU utilization

15. The main goal of CPU scheduling is to:

A) Maximize CPU utilization
B) Minimize disk I/O
C) Reduce memory usage
D) Increase cache hits

16. Which is NOT an objective of CPU scheduling?

A) Maximize disk access speed
B) Minimize turnaround time
C) Maximize throughput
D) Minimize waiting time

17. In FCFS scheduling, processes are executed in:

A) The order they arrive
B) Priority order
C) Shortest burst time
D) Round-robin fashion

18. The convoy effect is a disadvantage of:

A) FCFS
B) SJN
C) Round Robin
D) Priority Scheduling

19. Shortest Job Next (SJN) is a:

A) Non-preemptive algorithm
B) Preemptive algorithm
C) Multilevel queue
D) Feedback queue

20. SJN minimizes:

A) Average waiting time
B) Response time
C) Context switches
D) CPU idle time

21. Which scheduling requires knowledge of future burst times?

A) SJN
B) FCFS
C) Round Robin
D) Multilevel Queue

22. Priority Scheduling can lead to:

A) Starvation
B) Convoy effect
C) High throughput
D) Low context switching

23. In preemptive Priority Scheduling, a higher priority process can:

A) Interrupt the current process
B) Wait until current finishes
C) Be ignored
D) Run in parallel

24. Round Robin gives each process a fixed:

A) Time quantum
B) Priority level
C) Memory block
D) Burst time

25. Round Robin is fair and provides good:

A) Response time
B) Throughput
C) CPU utilization
D) Waiting time

26. High context-switching overhead is a disadvantage of:

A) Round Robin
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Priority

27. Multilevel Queue Scheduling divides the ready queue into:

A) Multiple levels with different priorities
B) A single queue
C) Dynamic partitions
D) Fixed time slots

28. In Multilevel Feedback Queue, processes can:

A) Move between queues
B) Stay in one queue
C) Be deleted
D) Run in parallel

29. Turnaround Time (TAT) =

A) Completion Time - Arrival Time
B) Burst Time - Waiting Time
C) Response Time + Burst Time
D) Arrival Time - Start Time

30. Waiting Time (WT) =

A) TAT - Burst Time
B) Completion Time - Arrival Time
C) Start Time - Arrival Time
D) Burst Time - Response Time

31. In the FCFS example (P1:0,5; P2:1,3; P3:2,8), what is the completion time of P2?

A) 8
B) 5
C) 16
D) 11

32. In FCFS, the average waiting time for the example is:

A) 3.33
B) 4.0
C) 6.0
D) 7.0

33. In SJN, which process runs first in the example (arrival 0,1,2; burst 5,3,8)?

A) P2 (burst 3)
B) P1 (burst 5)
C) P3 (burst 8)
D) All at once

34. Registers are located:

A) Directly within the CPU
B) In RAM
C) On the hard disk
D) In cache only

35. Internal fragmentation occurs in:

A) Fixed Partitioning
B) Dynamic Partitioning
C) Virtual Memory
D) Cache

36. Which algorithm is best for minimizing average waiting time?

A) SJN
B) FCFS
C) Round Robin
D) Priority

37. In Round Robin with quantum=2, how many context switches occur for 3 processes?

A) More than FCFS
B) Same as FCFS
C) Zero
D) One

38. Which is non-preemptive by nature?

A) FCFS
B) Preemptive Priority
C) Round Robin
D) SRTF

39. The memory hierarchy balances:

A) Cost, speed, and capacity
B) Only speed
C) Only cost
D) Only capacity

40. Which storage is used for backup and archival?

A) Tertiary and Offline Storage
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Registers

41. Dynamic partitioning creates partitions based on:

A) Process size
B) Fixed sizes
C) Priority
D) Arrival time

42. Compaction requires:

A) Additional overhead
B) No overhead
C) Cache clearing
D) Disk access

43. Which algorithm is adaptive?

A) Multilevel Feedback Queue
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Fixed Priority

44. In the Gantt chart for FCFS, the order is:

A) P1 → P2 → P3
B) P2 → P1 → P3
C) P3 → P1 → P2
D) P1 → P3 → P2

45. Response Time is the time from submission to:

A) First response
B) Completion
C) Waiting
D) Burst end

46. Cache memory stores:

A) Frequently accessed data
B) All data permanently
C) Only OS code
D) Backup data

47. Which is a disadvantage of Single Partition Allocation?

A) Limits system to one user process
B) High overhead
C) External fragmentation
D) Complex implementation

48. Dynamic Partitioning can result in:

A) External fragmentation
B) Internal fragmentation
C) No fragmentation
D) Cache overflow

49. Which scheduling algorithm is simple to implement?

A) FCFS
B) Multilevel Feedback Queue
C) Priority with aging
D) SRTF

50. In the FCFS example, what is the TAT for P3?

A) 14
B) 8
C) 6
D) 16

51. The memory hierarchy is structured to balance:

A) Cost, speed, and capacity
B) Only speed and cost
C) Only capacity
D) Only reliability

52. Which of the following is non-volatile?

A) SSD
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Registers

53. Internal fragmentation means:

A) Unused space within allocated blocks
B) Free memory scattered
C) Process too large
D) Cache miss

54. Which algorithm is not suitable for real-time systems?

A) SJN
B) Round Robin
C) Priority
D) FCFS

55. In Round Robin, the time quantum affects:

A) Context switching frequency
B) Memory allocation
C) Disk I/O
D) Cache hits

56. Multilevel Queue is good for:

A) Specialization for different process types
B) Fairness only
C) Minimizing waiting time
D) Reducing context switches

57. In the example, P2 arrives at time:

A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 5

58. Which is a preemptive algorithm?

A) Round Robin
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Non-preemptive Priority

59. The primary storage for executing processes is:

A) Main Memory (RAM)
B) Cache
C) HDD
D) Tape

60. Which scheduling provides control over process execution order?

A) Priority Scheduling
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Round Robin

61. L1 cache is:

A) Fastest and smallest
B) Slowest and largest
C) Medium speed
D) Non-existent

62. Which causes wastage if process doesn’t fully use allocated space?

A) Single Partition Allocation
B) Dynamic Partitioning
C) Fixed Partitioning
D) Virtual Memory

63. Which algorithm is complex to implement?

A) Multilevel Feedback Queue
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Round Robin

64. In the example, P1 burst time is:

A) 5
B) 3
C) 8
D) 1

65. Which is a disadvantage of Priority Scheduling?

A) Starvation
B) Convoy effect
C) High context switching
D) Unfairness

66. Secondary storage includes:

A) HDDs and SSDs
B) RAM and Cache
C) Registers
D) L1 Cache

67. Which reduces internal fragmentation?

A) Dynamic Partitioning
B) Fixed Partitioning
C) Single Partition
D) Compaction

68. In SJN, the process with shortest burst time is selected:

A) Next
B) Last
C) Randomly
D) By priority

69. The Gantt chart shows:

A) CPU allocation over time
B) Memory usage
C) Disk I/O
D) Network traffic

70. Which algorithm is fair?

A) Round Robin
B) SJN
C) Priority
D) FCFS

71. Which is used to reduce external fragmentation?

A) Compaction
B) Paging
C) Segmentation
D) Swapping

72. In the example, total burst time is:

A) 16
B) 5
C) 8
D) 11

73. Which algorithm has rigid priority rules?

A) Multilevel Queue
B) Multilevel Feedback Queue
C) Round Robin
D) FCFS

74. Which is a type of non-preemptive scheduling?

A) SJN
B) SRTF
C) Round Robin
D) Preemptive Priority

75. The ready queue holds processes waiting for:

A) CPU
B) Memory
C) I/O
D) Disk

76. Which is a disadvantage of Round Robin?

A) High context-switching overhead
B) Starvation
C) Convoy effect
D) Unpredictable

77. In contiguous allocation, fragmentation is a major issue in:

A) Multi-partition systems
B) Single partition
C) Cache
D) Registers

78. Which algorithm is flexible and adaptive?

A) Multilevel Feedback Queue
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Fixed Priority

79. The convoy effect occurs when:

A) Short processes wait for a long one
B) High priority blocks low
C) Time quantum expires
D) Cache miss

80. Which is used for long-term storage?

A) Secondary Storage
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Registers

81. In the example, P3 waiting time is:

A) 6
B) 0
C) 4
D) 14

82. Which scheduling maximizes throughput?

A) SJN
B) FCFS
C) Round Robin
D) Priority

83. Which is located directly within the CPU?

A) Registers
B) RAM
C) SSD
D) HDD

84. Which allocation simplifies the process but has fragmentation?

A) Contiguous Memory Allocation
B) Paging
C) Segmentation
D) Virtual

85. Which is a disadvantage of Fixed Partitioning?

A) Internal fragmentation
B) External fragmentation
C) Starvation
D) Convoy effect

86. In the Gantt chart, P1 runs from:

A) 0 to 5
B) 5 to 8
C) 8 to 16
D) 1 to 3

87. Which algorithm can interrupt a running process?

A) Preemptive
B) Non-preemptive
C) Batch
D) Interactive

88. Which is used for archival purposes?

A) Tertiary Storage
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Registers

89. Which scheduling is cyclic?

A) Round Robin
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Priority

90. The average TAT in FCFS example is:

A) 8.67
B) 5.0
C) 10.0
D) 7.0

91. Which is a type of tertiary storage?

A) Magnetic Tape
B) RAM
C) L1 Cache
D) Registers

92. Which allocation wastes memory in single partition?

A) If process doesn’t use full space
B) If process is too large
C) If cache miss
D) If disk full

93. Which scheduling is best for interactive systems?

A) Round Robin
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Priority

94. In the example, P2 TAT is:

A) 7
B) 5
C) 8
D) 3

95. Which is a disadvantage of SJN?

A) Requires future knowledge
B) High context switching
C) Starvation
D) Convoy effect

96. Which memory is primary for process execution?

A) RAM
B) SSD
C) Cache
D) Tape

97. Which algorithm uses a time quantum?

A) Round Robin
B) FCFS
C) SJN
D) Priority

98. Which is a technique to consolidate free memory?

A) Compaction
B) Paging
C) Segmentation
D) Swapping

99. In Multilevel Queue, queues have:

A) Different priority levels
B) Same priority
C) No priority
D) Dynamic priority

100. The primary purpose of memory management is to:

A) Optimize use of memory resources
B) Increase CPU speed
C) Reduce disk I/O
D) Improve network latency

Test Results

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